Small Ruminants Practice Exam

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• Which species is very susceptible to Tetanus?
• How should peripartum antibiotic therapy be determined for a ewe or doe with dystocia and potential uterine infection?
• Which drug is used in high dose to treat listeriosis in small ruminants?
• Where does barber pole worm primarily reside in the host?
• What are oral treatments for external parasites?
• How should producers monitor and maintain ewe/doe body condition score during the breeding season to optimize reproductive performance?
• CAE is abbreviated as what?
• What are clinical signs of ovine progressive pneumonia?
• When and how should tail docking be performed in lambs, and what analgesia is recommended?
• What are the four stages of paratuberculosis?
• Which zoonotic disease causes open wounds on the muzzle?
• What environment measure helps prevent neonatal hypothermia during lambing?
• What is the typical rumen pH range in small ruminants, and which management practice helps prevent rumen acidosis?
• In neonatal lambs and kids, what is the most common septicemic cause of death within the first 24 hours, and a key prevention measure?
• Which measure reduces the spread of CAE in a flock?
• Which internal parasite is attached to cecum or upper colon and with overwhelming infections can cause fatal hemorrhage?
• Which diseases are considered reportable?
• Tapeworm infections in small ruminants occur after the host ingests what?
• What is the species name for barberpole worm?
• In the management of pregnancy toxemia, under what circumstance should parturition be considered?
• Which external parasite can transmit eye worms and predispose to pink eye?
• What is the recommended vaccination approach for clostridial disease in small ruminants (CDT), including timing relative to parturition?
• What practice reduces the risk of mycotoxin exposure in small ruminant feed?
• Which external parasite causes warbles?
• Which set of diseases has no treatment and should be culled?
• Which disease is the whole flock culled?
• What is the initial step in neonatal resuscitation for a non-breathing lamb or kid?
• Which intestinal parasite causes hepatic trauma due to migration and is transmitted by snails?
• Which action would be least effective as a stand-alone parasite control strategy?
• What are key considerations for selecting a deworming program in a mixed-age small ruminant flock?
• What is the typical gestation length for both sheep and goats?
• Which hoof disease is infectious?
• Which disease comes in three forms (neurological, mastitic, arthritic)?
• Which management practice reduces parasite transmission on pasture?
• What is the recommended approach to nutrition in late gestation to prevent lambing/kidding complications?
• What is a recommended practice when introducing new stock to a flock to prevent disease spread?
• Listeriosis affects which two body systems?
• What is the purpose of a fecal egg count reduction test (FECRT) in small ruminants, and how is resistance inferred?
• Which genus does barberpole worm belong to?
• Which internal parasite lives in the abomasum, is blood sucking, and causes severe anemia and protein loss?
• Which management practice reduces copper toxicity risk in small ruminants?
• What is a recommended management approach for vaginal prolapse in late-pregnant ewes or does?
• Which statement correctly describes topical treatments for external parasites?
• What is the role of pasteurellosis vaccination in small ruminants and when is it typically administered?
• Which statement best describes a smart drenching approach?
• How does malnutrition relate to susceptibility to parasitic infections in small ruminants, and what management strategy reduces risk?
• Two common etiologies of abortion in sheep and goats caused by protozoa and bacteria, respectively?
• CDT vaccination protects against which organisms?
• Which of the following is a management option for CAE?
• Which vaccination site is used for Meat Goats?
• Which description best matches the clinical signs of brucellosis in sheep and goats?
• Which disease affects the neurologic and reproductive systems of small ruminants?
• What is the typical body condition score range for healthy adult small ruminants on a 1 scale, and where is fat cover assessed?
• How does caseous lymphadenitis gain entry to the body?
• Which statement best describes treatment considerations for listeriosis?
• Why is rotating dewormer classes recommended in a deworming program?
• Which disease infection occurs at 30 days of age, but clinical signs do not appear until 3-5 years?
• What is the cause of diarrhea in neonates that is also zoonotic?
• In goats, brucellosis may present with which sign?
• Are screwworms reportable in many jurisdictions?
• Pregnancy toxemia is caused by which condition?
• Which parasite is also known as the hair worm?
• Which disease is monitored with an ear tag program for flocks?
• EAE stands for Enzootic Abortion in Ewes.
• Which disease is the leading cause of abortion in sheep?
• Pregnancy toxemia can be caused by which metabolic condition?
• What is the recommended resuscitation sequence when a newborn lamb or kid is not breathing at birth?
• Which parasite causes severe anemia?
• Which analgesia and method selection approach is recommended to minimize pain during castration of lambs or kids?
• Which list includes reportable diseases?
• What is the scientific name for the screwworm?
• What does the acronym CAE stand for?
• How long should new animals be quarantined for?
• How does litter size affect dystocia risk in small ruminants?
• In a complete blood count, what findings would indicate anemia due to Haemonchus contortus infestation?
• Enzootic Abortion in Ewes is most commonly associated with abortion in which species?
• Which option correctly describes the mechanism of action and withdrawal considerations for a common anthelmintic like ivermectin?
• Internal caseous lymphadenitis is more common in which species?
• How can you differentiate toxoplasmosis abortion from chlamydial abortion based on clinical history and diagnostic tests?
• What is the full name for CAE?
• How is FAMACHA scoring performed, and when should anthelmintic treatment be considered?
• One of the most common causes of abortion in sheep and the number one cause of abortion in goats?
• To prevent pregnancy toxemia, what dietary adjustment is recommended during pregnancy?
• What is the other name for scrapie?
• Which disease presents with coughing and bronchial exudates and is managed by culling rather than treatment?
• Which item is not listed as an environmental management method for parasites?
• Mastitis management includes culling chronic cases; which statement best reflects this practice?
• What is the number one cause of diarrhea in goats?
• Approximate daily water requirement for small ruminants is what percentage of body weight?
• Which external parasite causes severe pruritus and hair loss and how is it controlled?
• What is the typical gestation length for sheep and goats, and how does litter size affect gestation?
• Which disease is caused by prions and leads to culling of affected flocks?
• Which disease is commonly referred to as sore mouth?
• What is uterine torsion in sheep/goats and the initial management steps to relieve it?
• Which region is used for intramuscular injections in goats?
• Which mite is commonly responsible for mange in small ruminants, and what is a standard herd-level treatment approach?
• What management practice helps maintain refugia in anthelmintic resistance management?
• On the FAMACHA scale, what does a score of 1 represent, and what does a score of 5 represent?
• Name two common nutritional disease syndromes in late-pregnancy small ruminants and a preventive measure for each.
• What must be established for the DVM to administer or dispense medication?
• Pregnancy toxemia is typically seen when the dam is carrying multiples. When does this condition occur?
• Which region is used for subcutaneous injections in small ruminants?
• Which parasite is commonly associated with neonatal diarrhea and is zoonotic?
• What is the number one cause of abortion in sheep?
• What is a recommended herd-level approach to suspected caseous lymphadenitis?
• Which condition is associated with low blood sugar and pregnancy toxemia?
• Enterotoxemia is another name for which condition?
• Which internal parasite lives in the small intestine and causes diarrhea?
• Which external parasite is responsible for strike?
• To maintain a valid VCPR for dispensing medications, how often should the veterinarian visit the farm?
• Is the same dosing of deworming used for goats and sheep?
• Which disease is also known as splenic fever?
• Name three common lameness etiologies in small ruminants and initial management steps.
• What special precautions should be taken when dealing with livestock suspected to have anthrax?
• What are treatment options for listeriosis?
• What is a management option for CAE?
• Why must copper be carefully managed in small ruminants, and what are signs of copper toxicity?
• For show goats, on which side is the Axillary region vaccine given?
• Buck vaccine guidelines
• What diagnostic test would you use to differentiate pasteurellosis from other respiratory diseases in a flock?
• Which statement best describes the mechanism of action for macrocyclic lactones, such as ivermectin, in treating parasitic infections?
• What is the main approach to preventing coccidiosis in lambs and kids, and the typical treatment for clinical cases?
• What is the treatment for ovine progressive pneumonia?
• Which supplement can help prevent crystals from forming (uroliths)?
• Clostridium perfringens types C and D cause which disease?
• What are the vaccination sites?
• Which external parasite causes warbles in cattle?
• What is the standard method for confirming pregnancy in the ewe or doe after mating, and when is it most accurate?
• Define targeted selective treatment (TST) in parasite control and list two benefits.
• Which intestinal parasite is found in the small intestine and occurs when host ingests infected oribatid mite?
• Describe the clinical signs of pregnancy toxemia (ketosis) in late-pregnant ewes/does and the first-line treatment.
• Which statements are true about vaccination sites in goats?
• What is the best FAMACHA score?
• What is a hallmark sign of caseous lymphadenitis in small ruminants?
• How do you evaluate abortion risk factors in small ruminants, and what preventive strategy can reduce risk?
• Which diseases have no treatment and should be culled?
• Which vaccination site is used for Show Goats? And which side do it is given on?
• Which sign may indicate brucellosis in rams?
• A frequent cause of respiratory disease in small ruminants and a preventative vaccination approach?
• In managing mange outbreaks in small ruminants, which environmental control step is essential?
• Why is reproductive efficiency important in small ruminant production, and what is a commonly used indicator?
• Which stomach compartment is the true stomach where acid secretion and enzymatic digestion occur?
• Flocks that are free of what disease have a USDA ear tag?
• Which disease is a classic transmissible spongiform encephalopathy?
• What are other names for contagious ecthyma?
• Foot scald is best described as which of the following?
• How is passive transfer of antibodies in newborn lambs/kids assessed, and what IgG level indicates adequate transfer?
• What is the only core vaccine given to sheep and goats?
• Prevention for pregnancy toxemia includes which dietary strategy?
• Which disease in goats is associated with abortion storms?
• Which stomach compartment is primarily responsible for fermentation in the ruminant stomach?
• Passive transfer assessment is typically done by measuring IgG concentration in which sample or using which test?
• Pregnancy toxemia is caused by what metabolic issue?
• What is the number one cause of death in small ruminants?
• Signs of hypocalcemia in periparturient ewes/does and initial treatment.
• What is the most common cause of abortion in goats?
• Explain the concept of refugia in anthelmintic resistance management and how it influences treatment decisions.
• Which bacteria are most commonly involved in mastitis in small ruminants, and what general treatment strategy is used?
• CAE primarily affects which species?
• Overeating disease is also known as?
• Which diagnostic tests are used to confirm abortion etiology such as toxoplasmosis or chlamydial infections in small ruminants?
• Which disease is a transmissible spongiform encephalopathy that should be culled due to no treatment?
• Caprine Arthritis Encephalitis forms; which is most common?
• What are common indications for a cesarean section in small ruminants, and two major risk factors?
• What is the purpose of pregnancy scanning in small ruminants and what technology is commonly used?
• How do sheep and goats get tapeworms?
• What are the external and internal signs of caseous lymphadenitis?
• Which strategy best reduces environmental contamination with parasite eggs in a mixed-age flock?
• What is the significance of fungal mycotoxins in small ruminant feed, and one common clinical sign?
• What are topical treatments for external parasites?
• Which disease is also called Transmissible Spongiform Encephalopathies in some literature?
• Listeriosis typically presents with neurological signs due to lesions in which system?
• When should the Tetanus/CD-T vaccine be administered if it was not given after birth for Kids?
• Which external parasite is associated with pink eye predisposition?
• Which statement about foot scald is true?
• Which of the following is a contagious bacterial hoof infection?
• Distinguish between enterotoxemia and tetanus in small ruminants in terms of causative organisms and vaccination strategy.
• What three things must be in place to have a valid VCPR?
• Listeriosis in small ruminants is most reliably diagnosed by which method?
• CDT is the only core vaccine for sheep and goats.
• Which of the following is an environmental management method for parasites?
• Which parasite is transmitted via snails and migrates to the liver causing hepatic damage?
• What is CAE and what management practice reduces its spread in flocks?
• Which small ruminant can be vaccinated for brucellosis in the United States?
• Which organism is the most common cause of diarrhea in goats?
• CAE presents in which of the following forms?
• Foot rot is what type of infection?
• What does adequate passive transfer mean in neonatal small ruminants, and within what time frame should it occur?
• Which test card assesses parasite burden based on mucus membrane color?
• Which form of Caprine Arthritis Encephalitis (CAE) is most common?
• Identify two welfare considerations during lambing or kidding and how to mitigate risk.
• Which disease causes watery diarrhea and emaciation?
• What is the purpose of FAMACHA scoring?
• Which statement best describes the common causes and preventive measures for abortion storms in sheep and goats?
• Which statement best describes a welfare-focused precaution during kidding or lambing?